Step 1: sources and uses
Every deal starts with a table that must balance: where the money goes (uses) and where it comes from (sources). The purchase price is entry EBITDA × the entry multiple: $50m × 8.0 = $400m. Add $12m of fees and the total uses are $412m.
Lenders will provide about 5.0× EBITDA, so debt is $250m. Sponsor equity is the plug: total uses − debt = $162m, about 39% of the total. If the bank lends less, the sponsor has to put in more, and returns fall.
Step 2: cash flow and the debt schedule
Each year, EBITDA pays for interest, taxes and capex. Whatever is left repays debt:
Free cash flow for debt repayment = EBITDA − interest − taxes − capex
Taxes are charged on EBITDA − D&A − interest, so the interest tax shield is included. Interest is calculated on the opening debt balance. Interest on the average balance would depend on this year's repayment, which depends on cash flow, which depends on interest: a circular reference. The repayment is =MIN(C22,C23), so the model never repays more than is owed. Over five years the company repays $112.8m, and the shrinking debt means less interest every year.
Real LBOs split debt into tranches (a senior term loan with a cash sweep, notes repaid at exit) and include working capital. The logic is the same, just with more rows.
Worked example: a five-year LBO on one sheet
Inputs are yellow. The year columns use the same formulas copied across; the list below shows Year 1.
| A | B | C | D | E | F | G | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | Assumptions ($m) | Value | |||||
| 2 | Entry EBITDA | 50.0 | |||||
| 3 | Entry and exit multiple (x EBITDA) | 8.0 | |||||
| 4 | Fees and expenses | 12.0 | |||||
| 5 | Debt (x EBITDA) | 5.0 | |||||
| 6 | Interest rate | 8.0% | |||||
| 7 | EBITDA growth per year | 6.0% | |||||
| 8 | Tax rate | 25% | |||||
| 9 | D&A per year | 10.0 | |||||
| 10 | Capex per year | 12.0 | |||||
| 11 | |||||||
| 12 | Purchase enterprise value | 400.0 | |||||
| 13 | Total uses (EV + fees) | 412.0 | |||||
| 14 | Debt raised | 250.0 | |||||
| 15 | Sponsor equity (the plug) | 162.0 | |||||
| 16 | |||||||
| 17 | $m | Entry | Year 1 | Year 2 | Year 3 | Year 4 | Year 5 |
| 18 | EBITDA | 50.0 | 53.0 | 56.2 | 59.6 | 63.1 | 66.9 |
| 19 | − Interest (on opening debt) | 20.0 | 18.8 | 17.3 | 15.5 | 13.4 | |
| 20 | − Taxes | 5.8 | 6.9 | 8.1 | 9.4 | 10.9 | |
| 21 | − Capex | 12.0 | 12.0 | 12.0 | 12.0 | 12.0 | |
| 22 | Free cash flow for debt repayment | 15.3 | 18.5 | 22.2 | 26.2 | 30.6 | |
| 23 | Opening debt | 250.0 | 234.8 | 216.2 | 194.0 | 167.8 | |
| 24 | − Repayment | 15.3 | 18.5 | 22.2 | 26.2 | 30.6 | |
| 25 | Closing debt | 250.0 | 234.8 | 216.2 | 194.0 | 167.8 | 137.2 |
| 26 | |||||||
| 27 | Exit enterprise value | 535.3 | |||||
| 28 | − Debt at exit | 137.2 | |||||
| 29 | Equity value at exit | 398.1 | |||||
| 30 | MOIC | 2.46x | |||||
| 31 | Sponsor cash flows | -162.0 | 0.0 | 0.0 | 0.0 | 0.0 | 398.1 |
| 32 | IRR | 19.7% |
- B15
=B13-B14Equity is the plug - C19
=C23*$B$6Interest on opening debt, no circularity - C20
=(C18-$B$9-C19)*$B$8Tax after D&A and interest - C24
=MIN(C22,C23)Never repay more than is owed - B29
=B27-B28Equity at exit - B30
=B29/B15MOIC - B32
=IRR(B31:G31)Sponsor IRR
Step 3: exit value and equity proceeds
At exit, the sponsor sells the company. A careful model assumes the exit multiple equals the entry multiple, so it does not rely on the market paying more later. Exit EV = year-5 EBITDA $66.9m × 8.0 = $535.3m. Subtract the debt still outstanding ($137.2m) and the sponsor's equity is worth $398.1m.
Step 4: MOIC and IRR
MOIC (multiple on invested capital) = exit equity ÷ equity invested = $398.1m ÷ $162m = 2.46x. It shows how many times the money came back, but not how fast.
IRR adds time. Put the sponsor's cash flows in a row (the investment as a negative number in year 0, the proceeds in year 5) and use =IRR(B31:G31): 19.7%. With no cash in between, the IRR is simply =MOIC^(1/5)-1, which gives the same answer and is a handy mental check.
Where did the gain come from? With a constant multiple, EBITDA growth added $135.3m of enterprise value and debt paydown $112.8m. Together that is $248.1m: the $236.1m gain on the sponsor's equity plus the $12m of fees paid at entry.
Step 5: test what moves the return
Change one input at a time and watch the IRR. If the sponsor has to sell at 7.0x instead of 8.0x, the MOIC falls to 2.04x and the IRR to 15.4%. If lenders provide only 4.0x EBITDA, the sponsor must put in more equity, and even though there is less interest to pay, the MOIC drops to 2.19x and the IRR to 17.0%. Leverage magnifies returns in both directions, which is the whole point of an LBO and also its main risk.
A two-way data table of exit multiple against leverage is the usual way to show this to an investment committee.
Common mistakes
- Sources that do not equal uses. Make sponsor equity a formula (uses − debt), never a typed number, and the table always balances.
- Interest on the average balance without enabling iterative calculation. It creates a circular reference. Opening-balance interest is the simple, stable choice.
- Forgetting fees in the uses. They are real cash the sponsor pays and they lower the return.
- Assuming multiple expansion. Exiting at a higher multiple than you paid can make any deal look good. Test returns at the entry multiple first.
- Taxing EBITDA instead of EBT. Taxes are due on profit after D&A and interest, so tax on EBITDA overstates them.
- Reading MOIC without time. 2.0x in three years and 2.0x in seven years are very different results. Always show the IRR next to it.
Frequently asked questions
What is a paper LBO?
A simplified LBO done with rounded numbers and mental maths, often in private-equity interviews. The steps are the same as here: sources and uses, cash flow, debt paydown, exit equity, MOIC and an approximate IRR.
What returns do private-equity funds target?
Targets differ by fund and market. An IRR of around 20% and a MOIC of 2.0 to 3.0x over about five years are commonly quoted, but treat them as orientation, not a rule.
Why is equity the plug in sources and uses?
The purchase price and the fees are fixed by the deal, and the debt is limited by what lenders will provide. Whatever is left must come from the sponsor.
How do I calculate IRR when there are dividends during the hold?
Put every cash flow in its year: the investment negative in year 0, dividends positive in the years they are paid, and the exit proceeds in the final year. Then use IRR, or XIRR if you have exact dates.